Saturday, November 2, 2013

Past Papers of all Subjects of CSS Exams Free


Past Papers of CSS Exams

Essay paper 2013

1. There should be colleges and schools just for men/boys and some just for women/girls.

2. Let me take care of today, tomorrow shall take care of itself.

3. The traditional male role changed in the last 20 years.

4. Gender equality is a myth.

5. Meaning and purpose of education.

6. If gold rust what shall the iron do.

7. Country life is better than city life.

8. Free speech should have limitations.

9. Not economy but politics is a key to success.

10. Modern day communication via social networks puts an end of true and sincere relationships.



 Pakistan affairs paper 2013

Part-I (MCQs)

1. Who was the governor of Sindh after Muhammad Bin Qasim?
a. Zaid Bin Marwan
b. Yazid Bin Muhallab
c. Abdullah Bin Haris
d. none

2. who was the mughal emperor who accepted the british pension firstly?
a. Alamgir-II
b. Shah Alam-II
c. Akbar-II
d. None

3. Ahmad Shah Abdali launched his early invasion against:
a. Mughal 
b. Marhatas
c. Sikhs
d. None

4. The British fought Plassy war against:
a. Haider Ali
b. Tipu Sultan
c. Sirajuddula
d. None

5. Dars-i-Nizami was named after:
a. Nizamuddin Auliya
b. Nizamul Mulk
c. Mullah Nizamuddin
d. None

6. Before 1857 how many Universities on Western pattern were established in India?
a. 16
b. 13
c. 3
d. None

7. When the MAO College at Alligarh was started?
a. 1864
b. 1877
c. 1875
d. None


8. Anjuman-i-Himayat e Islam was started in:
a. 1849
b. 1884
c. 1885
d. None

9. The constitution of All India Mulim League was written by:
a. Mohsin ul Mulk
b. Muhammad Ali Johar
c. Nawab Salimullah of Dacca
d. None


10. The first session of Muhammad Educational Conference was held in Bangal:
a. 1886
b. 1899
c. 1906
d. None

11. The London branch of Muslim League was started by:
a. Syed Amir Ali
b. Sir Wazir Hassan
c. Hasan Bilgrami
d. None

12. “Hamdard” was edited by
a. Moulana SHoukat Ali
b. Moulana Muhammad Ali Johar
c. Moulana Zafar Ali Khan
d. None

13. “Shudhi” movement was started by:
a. Jawahr Lal Nehru
b. Tilak
c. Gandhi
d. None


14. Majlis-ii-Ahrar was found in:
a. 1928
b. 1929
c. 1931
d. None


15. In Kashmir the ceasefire between Pakistan and India was signed on:
a. 27th july 1948
b. 27th july 1949
c. 27th july 1950
d. None

16. Islamabad was declared capital of Pakistan in:
a. 1959
b. 1960
c. 1961
d. None

17. Majority of Southern Pakistan population lived along the:
a. River Indus
b. River Ravi
c. River Jhelum
d. None

18. The Aryan arrived in South Asia in :
a. 3000BC -3500BC
b. 4000BC- 4500BC
c. 4500BC-5000BC
d. None

19. The most ancient civilization is:
a. Harrapa
b. Mohjudaru
c. Mehargarh
d. None

20.The author of “The Case of Pakistan” is
a. Rafiq Afzal
b. S M Ikram
c. I.H. Qureshi
d. None



Part-II


Attempt only FOUR questions.

Q.No.2 Critically examine the Muslim shift from militancy to education with a special reference to the educational movements launched during the 19th century in South Asia. (20)

Q.No.3. Trace the history of the Muslim conquests of present day Pakistan areas highlighting their contributions in transforming the society and culture. (20)

Q.No.4. What was the contribution of the Muslim Press in the struggle of creation of Pakistan? Examine the role of prominent Muslim journalists in this regard. (20)

Q.No.5. Compare the socio-economic and political conditions of the Muslims and non-Muslims at the advent of British rule in South Asia? (20)

Q.No.6. Elucidate the difficulties in establishment of an Islamic order in Pakistan after independence. (20)

Q.No.7. “The twentieth century witnessed the war for oil. The twenty-first century will witness the war for water”. Examine the practical implications of this statement on situation of Pakistan. (20)

Q.No.8. Through Allama Iqbal’s writings and views of Quaid-i-Azam explain their conceptual understanding about the Islamic state. Do you agree that their vision found some place while explaining the constitutional developments throughout the case of Pakistan’s political history? (20)


FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR
RECRUITMENT TO POSTS IN BPS-17 UNDER
THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2013


ENGLISH (Précis and Composition)

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I MCQs) 30 MINUTES .................. MAX. MARKS:20
(PART-II) 2 HOURS & 30 MINUTES...MAX.MARKS:80


PART I - COMPULSORY

Q.1 Choose the word that is near most similar in meaning to the Capitalized words. (1 Mark each) (20)

1. BRISTLE:
a) Regulate 
b) Flare up 
c) Frail 
d) Exhilarate 
e) None of These

2. DELUGE
a). Immerse 
b) Rescue 
c) Drown 
d) Overflow 
e) None of These

3. TIRADE
a) Argument 
b) Procession 
c) Angry Speech 
d) Torture 
e) None of These

4. QUASI
a) Secret 
b) Improper 
c) Seeming 
d) Whole 
e) None of These

5. VILIFY
a) To Prove 
b) Boast 
c) Defraud 
d) Defame 
e) None of These

6. RIGMAROLE
a) Unnecessary 
b) Disorder 
c) Confused Talk 
d) Game 
e) None of These

7. DEIGN
a) Condescend 
b) Pretend 
c) Disparage
d) Refuse 
e) None of These

8. PROLETARIAT
a) Trade Agreement 
b) Government Secretariat
c) Labouring Class 
d) Wealthy Class 
e) None of These

9. LUDICROUS
a) Liberal 
b) Fearful 
c) Comic 
d) Praise Worthy 
e) None of These

10. MALEFIC
a) Baleful 
b) Belonging to a male person 
c) Social 
d) Fighting by Nature 
e) None of These

Choose the word that is nearly most opposite in meaning to the Capitalized words.


11. LANGUID
a) Feeble
b) Dull 
c) Vigorous
d) Weak 
e) None of these

12. HIGH-STRUNG
a) Nervous 
b) Tense 
c) Costly
d) Calm
e) None of these

13. METTLE
a) Courage 
b) Boldness 
c) Cowardice 
d) Spirit 
e) None of these

14. ABRIDGMENT
a) Epitome
b) Dissect 
c) Abstract 
d) Synopsis
e) None of these

15. CAJOLE
a) Flaunt 
b) Coax
c) Beguile 
d) Flatter
e) None of these

16. CELIBACY
a ) Virginity
b)Wedlock
c) Chastity
d) Single
e) None of these

17. INCLEMENT
a) Rough 
b) Unpleasant 
c) Unfavorable 
d) Genial
e) None of these

18. IRRESOLUTE
a) Ineffective 
b) Without resolution
c) Yielding 
d) Sturdy 
e) None of these

19. ANNEXATION
a) Supplement 
b) Augmentation 
c) Appendix 
d) Contraction 
e) None of these

20. INCUR
a) Shun 
b) Run 
c) Blamed
d) Meet 
e) None of these

PART II
Note: (i) PART - II is to be attempted on separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt all questions from PART - II.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.
(iv) Candidate must write Q. No in the Answer Book in accordance with Q. No in the Q, paper.

Q.2. Make the precis of the following passage and suggest a suitable heading. (20+2=22)

Culture, in human societies, has two main aspects; an external, formal aspect and an inner, ideological aspect. The external forms of culture, social or artistic, are merely an organized expression of its inner ideological aspect, and both are an inherent component of a given social structure. They are changed or modified when this structure. They are changed and modified when this structure is changed or modified and because of this organic link they also help and influence such changes in their parent organism. Cultural Problems, therefore, cannot be studied or understood or solved in isolation from social problems, i.e. problems of political and economic relationships. The cultural problems of the underdeveloped countries, therefore, have to be understood and solved in the light of larger perspective, in the context of underlying social problems. Very broadly speaking, these problems are primarily the problems of arrested growth; they originate primarily from long years of imperialist-Colonialist domination and the remnants of a backward outmoded social structure. This should not require much elaboration European Imperialism caught up with the countries of Asia, Africa or Latin America between the sixteenth and nineteenth centuries. Some of them were fairly developed feudal societies with ancient traditions of advanced feudal culture. Others had yet to progress beyond primitive pastoral tribalism. Social and cultural development of them all was frozen at the point of their political subjugation and remained frozen until the coming of political independence. The culture of these ancient feudal societies, in spite of much technical and intellectual excellence, was restricted to a small privileged class and rarely intermingled with the parallel unsophisticated folk culture of the general masses. Primitive tribal culture, in spite of its child like beauty, had little intellectual content. Both feudal and tribal societies living contagiously in the same homelands were constantly engaged in tribal, racial and religious or other feuds with their tribal and feudal rivals. Colonialist – imperialist domination accentuated this dual fragmentation, the vertical division among different tribal and national groups, the horizontal division among different classes within the same tribal or national groups. This is the basic ground structure, social and cultural, bequeathed to the newly liberated countries by their former over lords.


Q.3 Read the following passage and answer the question that follow. Use your own language.(20)

The civilization of China, as everyone knows, is based upon the teaching of Confucius, who flourished five hundred years before Christ. Like the Greeks and Romans, he did not think of human society as naturally progressive; on the contrary, he believed that in remote antiquity rulers had been wise, and the people had been happy to a degree which the degenerate present could admire but hardly achieve. This, of course, was a delusion. But the practical result was that Confucius, like other teachers of antiquity, aimed at creating a stable society, maintaining a certain level of excellence, but not always striving after new successes. In this he was more successful than any other men who ever lived. His personality has been stamped on Chinese civilization from his day to our own. During his lifetime the Chinese occupied only a small part of present-day China, and were divided into a number of warring states. During the next three hundred years they established themselves throughout what is now China proper, and founded an empire exceeding in territory and population any other that existed until the last fifty years. In spite of barbarian invasions, Mongol and Manchu dynasties, and occasional longer or shorter periods of chaos and civil war, the Confucian system survived, bringing with it art and literature and a civilized way of life. A system which has had this extra ordinary power of survival must have great merits, and certainly deserves our respect and consideration. It is not a religion, as we understand the word,because it is not associated with the supernatural or with mystical beliefs. It is a purely ethical system, but its ethics, unlike those of Christianity, are not too exalted for ordinary men to practice. In essence, what Confucius teaches is something very like the old-fashioned ideal of a ‘gentleman’ as it existed in the eighteenth century. One of his sayings will illustrate this: 'The true gentleman is never contentious ... he courteously salutes his opponents before taking up his position ... so that even when competing he remains a true gentleman'.

Questions:

  1. Why do you think the author calls Confucius' belief about the progress of human society as a delusion?
  2. How did Confucius' though affect China to develop into a stable and 'Proper' China?
  3. Why does the author think that Confucian system deserves respect and admiration?
  4. Why does the author call Confucian system a purely ethical system and not a religion?
  5. Briefly argue whether you agree or disagree to Confucius' ideal of a gentleman?

Q4. Write a comprehensive note (250-300 words) on any ONE of the following: (20)

  1. Revolution versus Evolution
  2. Let us agree to disagree in an agree-able way.
  3. Say not, struggle not availth.
  4. Beneath every cloud there is always a silver thing.
  5. Is democracy an ideal form of government?

Q.5. (a) Use ONLY FOUR of the following in sentences which illustrate their meaning: (Extra attempt shall not be considered). (04)

  1. The milk of human kindness
  2. A rule of thumb
  3. Out and out
  4. To wash one's dirty linen in public
  5. To pay through the nose
  6. To lose face

Q.5. (b) Use ONLY FOUR of the following pair of words in sentences which illustrate their meaning: (Extra attempt shall not be considered). (04)

  1. Adjoin, Adjourn
  2. Allay, Ally
  3. Bases, Basis
  4. Click, Clique
  5. Distract, Detract
  6. Liable, Libel
Q.6. (a) Correct ONLY FIVE of the following. Extra attempt shall not be considered. (05)

1. My boss agreed with my plan.
2. If he was here, he would be as wise as he was during the war.
3. We have amusements in form of music.
4. You get hungry for all the work you have to do
5. We were glad for being there.
6. I prefer the fifth act of Shakespeare King Lear the best of all.
7. After finishing my lecture, the bell rang.
8. We needed not to be afraid.


Q.6 (b) Change the narration from direct to indirect speech. (DO ONLY FIVE) Extra attempt shall not be considered.


1. “If I had spoken to my father as you speak to me he’d have beaten me,” he said to me.
2. “How far is it”? I said, “and how long will take me to get there”?
3. “Do you know anybody in this area or could you get a reference from your landlady?" he asked me.
4. She told me to look where I was going as the road was full of holes and very badly lit.
5. He wanted to know if I was going to concert and suggested that we should make up a party and go together.
6. He said, I must'nt mind if the first one wasn’t any good.
7. “What a nuisance! Now I’ll have to do it all over again”, he exclaimed.
8. “I must go to the dentist tomorrow”, he said. “ I have an appointment”.


ISLAMIAT Paper 2013
Part-I

Q.No.1. Select the best option/answer:


1. The largest Surah of the Quran is:
a. Al-Baqrah
b. Aali Imran
c. Al-Taubah
d. Surah Younus
e. None of these

2. Fidk Garden was bestowed to the Holy Prophet (SAW) as:
a. Fay
b. Booty
c. Gift
d. Loan
e. None of these

3. Arbeen is the book of Hadith in which there are:
a. 40 Ahadith
b. 50 Ahadith
c. 30 Ahadith
d. 20 Ahadith
e. None of these

4. The heads of Zakat are:
a. 8
b. 9
c. 7
d. 5
e. None of these

5. Mauwazatain mean:
a. A Collection of Ahadith
b. Two specific Surah of Quran
c. A book of Jafferi Fiqh
d. A book of Hanafi Fiqh
e. None of these

6. The numbers of famous months are:
a. 4
b. 6
c. 7
d. 2
e. None of these

7. Jabal-e-Noor is situated in:
a. Arafat
b. Ghar-i-Hira
c. Ghar-i-Saur
d. Madinah
e. None of these

8. Which country is known as the “Land of Prophet”?
a. Iraq
b. Saudi Arabia
c. Palestine
d. Syria
e. None of these

9. Zou-Shahadatein is the title of Hazrat:
a. Khuzaima Bin Sabit (RA)
b. Huzaifa Bin Yaman (RA)
c. Ammar Bin Yasir (RA)
d. Imam Abu Hanifa
e. None of these

10. Sura Saba i:
a. Makki
b. Madani
c. Iraqi
d. Makki Madni
e. None of these

11. Which Surah of Quran has Bismillah twice?
a. Al-Nahal
b. Al-Namal
c. Al-Ahzab
d. Al-Noor
e. None of these

12. Imam-e-Darul-Hijra was a title of:
a. Imam Ahmad
b. Imam Maalik
c. Imam Shafai
d. Imam Muhammad
e. None of these

13. Masjid Qiblatain is situated in:
a. Madinah
b. Makkah
c. Taif
d. Jabal e Noor
e. None of these

14. Which is a religious book of Hinduism?
a. Injeel
b. Taurat
c. Ramain
d. Bibel
e. None of these

15. The first Islamic month is:
a. Muharram
b. Zil Hajjah
c. Safar
d. Rajab
e. None of these

16. Which was the total number of idols were in the Kaaba?
a. 260
b. 360
c. 460
d. 560
e. None of these

17. Batha Valley is situated in:
a. Makkah
b. Madinah
c. Iraq
d. Jordan
e. None of these

18. Hazrat Muhammad (SAW) gave the key of Bait-Ullah permanently to:
a. Ummrah bin Utba
b. Hanzla bin Abil Amir
c. Usman Bin Talha
d. Abdullah bin Amir
e. None of these

19. AshabusSabt mean:
a. Jews
b. Christians
c. Muslims
d. Sabieen
e. None of these

20. The word Muhammad (SAW) as a name has been mentioned in Quran only:
a. Two time
b. Four time
c. Six time
d. Seven time
e. None of these

Part-II

Attempt ONLY FIVE questions.

Q.No.2. What is Human Dignity? Explain how Islam recognized it and what efforts have been adopted to maintain the superiority of man? (16)

Q.No.3 Describe the importance and philosophy of Fasting (SAUM). Also explain its individual and collective benefits? (16)

Q.No.4. Define Tauheed (Unity of Allah) in a scholarly manner describing its significance and its effects on human life? (16)

Q.No.5. What is the significance of “Jihad” in the light of Quran and Sunnah? What are its kinds, principles and conditions? (16)

Q.No.6. Define and explain Judicio-Political System of Islam? (16)

Q.No.7. write down in detail the problems of “Ummah” in the contemporary world.

Q.No.8. Discuss the concept of veil and freedom of women from Islamic point of view while analyzing the law against veil in France. (16)

Q.No.9. The Holy Quran is the fountain-head at all kind of knowledge. Discuss (16)


Current Affairs paper CE-2013

Q2: Discuss the successes and failures of political parties in bringing about a meaningful change in Pakistan.

Q3: Discuss the current socio-political and security situation of Afghanistan and its implications for the neighbouring countries.

Q4: How will "Arab spring" effect the political and security environment in the Arab World?

Q5: Discuss the importance of Pak-China relations. How does this relationship effect political and security environment in South Asia?

Q6: Discuss the causes of extremism and militancy in Pakistani society. Suggest ways and means for the state organs to overcome these problems.

Q7: Resolution of Kashmir issue between India and Pakistan can bring peace and prosperity in the region. Discuss.

Q8: Critically evaluate the causes of Energy crisis in Pakistan and its concequences for the ecnomic growth and socail fabric in the country.

Part 1 (COMPULSORY)
Answer given anywhere , other than OMR answer sheet, shall not be considered.

1: The international Day of Peace, sometimes unofficially known as world peace day, is observed annually on:
a) 21st september
b) 23rd september
c) 12th October
d) None of these.

2: International day for the Elimination of Violence against Racial Discrimination is observed annyally on:
a) 23rd May
b) 21st March
c) 01st March
d) None of these.

3: International Day for the Elimination of Violence against Women is observed annually on:
a) 25th December
b) 23rd November
c) 25th November
d) None of these.

4: Marin Luther KIng, Jr.Was an clergyman, activist and leader. He is famous for:
a) Civil rights Movement using non-violence disobedience in USA.
b) Civil rights Movement using violence in South Africa
c) Civil rights Movement using non-violence civil disbodience in India
d) Civil rights Movement using non-violence in Costa Rica

5: Which of the following Country has absolutely no military forces?
a) Costa Rica
b) Japan
c) Iceland
d) None of these

6: NATO headquarters are located in:
a) Birmingham
b) Barcelona
c) Baltimore
d) None of these.

7: The SAARC is an organisation of South asian nations. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
a) Maldives
b) Myanmar
c) Bhutan
d) None of these.

8: The UNO uses the Human development Index to:
a) predict, in order to prevent, which countries are most likely to engage in ethnic cleansing.
b) demonstrate how well a country is providing for its people's welfare and security.
c) predict the %age of displaced people that will leave a failed state.
d) prove that the Global South is not as poor as some have argued.

9: Which of the following states has not ratified teh Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty(CTBT)?
a) Canada.
b) France
c) United States.
d) None of these.

10: The most significant greenhouse gas is:
a) Ozone
b) ChloroFluorocarbons
c) carbonDioxide
d) None of these.

11: An Index that estimates the true rate of exchange among currencies is:
a) Human Development Index.
b) Exchange Rate.
c) Purchasing Power Parity.
d) None of these.

12: The idea that leaders initiate foreign conflicts in order to distract public opinion from controversial domestic policies is called:
a) Diversionary Theory of war.
b) Democratic peace Theory.
c) Autocratic Rule
d) None of these.

13: The lowest %age of internet users is found in:
a) North America
b) Africa
c) Australia
d) None of these.

14: The most prosperous member of global south, which have become important exporters and markets for the major industrialised countries are known as:
a) Newly Industrialised countries.
b) Developed Nations
c) Asian Tigers
d) None of these.

15: In international Relations, a global system containing two dominant powers is labelled with which of the terms?
a) Bipolar
b) Nationalist
c) Isolationist
d) None of these

16: The Axis powers in World War II did not include:
a) Germany
b) the Soviet Union
c) Italy
d) None of these

17: The position that a single dominant power can promote world peace came from :
a) balance-of-power
b) Socialist
c) Hegemonic stability
d) None of these

18: The US ambassador, J.Christopher Stevens was killed by millitants in :
a) Tripoli, Libya
b) Misrata, Libya
c) Benghazi, Libya
d) None of these

19: -------- explains how rational self-interested behaviour by individuals may have a destructive collective effect.
a) Tragedy of the commons
b) Population implosion.
c) carrying capacity
d) None of these

20: The process through which a country increases its capacity to meet its citizens' basic human needs and raise their standard of living is called:
a) Self-determination
b) Democratisation
c) Development
d) None of these


 Everyday science paper 2013

PART-I

Q.1 Select the best option and fill in the appropriate circle.

1. Who proposed the concept “All motion is relative”?
a. Albert Einstein
b. John Kepler
c. Galileo Galilie
d. None

2. The field of specialization of famous Muslim scientist Abu Usman Aljahiz was:
a. Botany 
b. Zoology
c. Astronomy
d. None

3. Albatros is:
a. A sea bird
b. A beetle
c. A fruit
d. None

4. The sunlight can reach a depth of …….. meters in the ocean:
a. 100
b. 80
c. 120
d. None

5. The biggest planet in our solar system is:
a. Venus
b. Pluto
c. Jupiter
d. None

6. The biggest species of the cat family is:
a. Tiger
b. Lion
c. Leopard
d. None

7. Which group of animals has heterogametic females?
a. Domestic fowl
b. Earthworm
c. Rabbit
d. None

8. The dominant phase of life cycle in these organism is haploid:
a. Mosses
b. Bacteria
c. Protoza
d. None

9. The atmosphere of moon consists of:
a. 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
b. 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
c. 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
d. None

10. The chemical name of quartz is:
a. Silicon Dioxide
b. Stannous Oxide
c. Aluminium Oxide
d. None

11. Which month of calendar year can lack a new moon?
a. December
b. February
c. May
d. None

12. Deuterium differs from Hydrogen in having:
a. Different atomic number but same atomic weight
b. Different atomic number and different atomic weight
c. Same atomic number and different atomic weight
d. None

13. One of the following is a water soluble vitamin:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin K
d. None

14. Coulomb is the scientific unit to measure:
a. Velocity
b. Temperature
c. Mass
d. None

15. Equator passes through one of these countries:
a. Saudi Arabia
b. Italy
c. Japan
d. None

16. Anti Diuretic hormone is secreted by one of the following glands:
a. Pituitary
b. Pancreas
c. Thyroid
d. None

17. Basha Dam is to be constructed on:
a. River Sutlaj
b. River Jhelum
c. River Chenab
d. None

18. UV light falls in the category of:
a. Ionizing Radiations
b. Non Ionizing Radiation
c. Visible light
d. None

19. The earth’s ……………….is divided into 15 major plates of various sizes:
a. Mesosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Lithosphere
d. None

20. One of these scientists formulated basic laws of Geometry:
a. Pythagorus
b. Archimedes
c. Aristotle
d. None

21. Phosphorus is an essential component of one of the following biological molecules:
a. Amino acids
b. Nucleic acids
c. Carbohydrates
d. None

22. He was the first scientist to prove that plants move around the sun:
a. Archimedes
b. Galileo Galilei
c. John Kepler
d. None

23. Atom is made up of ........... different kinds of subatomic particles:
a. Three
b. Two
c. Four
d. None

24. Uranium is best used as nuclear fuel in one of the following forms:
a. U 235
b. U 237
c. U 238
d. None

25. The alpha particles are compact clusters of:
a. Electron and Proton
b. Two Protons and two Neutrons
c. Three protons and three Neutrons
d. None

26. The Beta particles are fast moving
a. Protons
b. Electrons
c. Neutrons
d. None

27. One of the following countries produces maximum energy from atomic reactors:
a. France
b. USA
c. UK
d. none

28. The unit to measure the quantity of Ozone in atmosphere is 
a. Dobson
b. Dalton
c. Cuolomb
d. none

29. The severity of 2005 earthquake in Pakistan on Richter scale was
a. 6.9
b. 7.6
c. 7.1
d. none

30. Geiger-Muller counter is used to detect:
a. Protons
b. Neutrons
c. Photons
d. none

31. Vacuum tubes have been replaced by:
a. Conductors
b. Diodes
c. Transistors

32. Dacron is 
a. Polyethylene
b. Epoxy
c. Polyamide
d. none

33. It is a secondary plant nutrient:
a. Nitrogen
b. Phosphorus
c. Sulphur
d. none

34. An area of microbiology that is concerned with the occurence of disease in human population is 
a. Immunology
b. Paracitology
c. Epidemiology
d. none

35. The number of electrons of a neutral atom is automatically known if one knows the:
a. Atomic number
b. Atomic weight
c. Number of orbitals
d. none

36. Which of the following is not an enzyme?
a. Chemotrypsin
b. Secretin
c. Pepsin
d. none

37. It is impossible for a type of O+ baby to have a type of .............. mother:
a. AB-
b. O-
c. O+
d. none

38. Serum if blood plasma minus its:
a. Calcium ions
b. Clotting proteins
c. Globulins
d. none

39. The autonomic nervous system innervates all of these except:
a. Cardiac muscles
b. Skeletal muscles
c. Smooth muscles
d. none

40. The damage to the .............. nerve could result in the defect of the eye movement:
a. Optic
b. Trigeminal
c. Abducens
d. none

41. Which of these is not a region of the spinal cord?
a. Thoracic
b. Pelvic
c. Lumbar
d. none

42. The shape of the external ear is due to:
a. Elastic cartilage
b. Fibrocartilage
c. Articular cartilage
d. none

43. The external surface of the stomach is covered by
a. Mucosa
b. Serosa
c. Parietal peritoneum
d. none

44. Which of the following is not a human organ system?
a. Integumentary
b. Muscular
c. Epithelical
d. none

45. Which of the following does not vary predictably with the depth of the aquatic environment?
a. Salinity
b. Temperature
c. Penetration by sunlight
d. none

46. The quantity of available nutrients .............from the lower levels of the energy pyramids to the higher ones.
a. Increases
b. decreases
c. remains stable
d. none

47. Which of the following is not a major sub division of the biosphere?
a. Hydrosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Lithosphere
d. none

48. Vaccination is synonomyous with .............. immunity.
a. Natural active
b. Artificial passive
c. Artificial active
d. none

49. When a patient's immune system becomes reactive to a drug, this is an example of:
a. Super infection
b. Drug resistance
c. Allergy
d. none

50. What is the smallest unit of heredity?
a. Chromosomes
b. Gene
c. Nucleotides
d. none


Part-II

Attempt only FIVE Questions

Q.No.2. (a) “The flood disaster in Pakistan is caused by the follies of humans”.comment (5)
(b) State the message of “The Earth Hour Movement”. (5)

Q.No.3. (a) Porifera is an ancient group of animals from Cambrian period. What is the cause of their survival/success? (5)
(b) How heavy water differs from ordinary water and what is its use in Atomic Reactor? (5)

Q.No.4. What part do antibiodies play in allergic reaction? How vaccination can be helpful in its control/prevention? (10)

Q.No.5. (a) Differentiate between Renewable and Non-renewable sources of energy. Give examples of each one of them. (5)
(b) Why Nuclear Energy is being preferred in developed countries and why are we lagging behind in this important source of energy? (5)

Q.No.6. (a) What is Nanotechnology and what are its use? (5)
(b) Briefly explain the differences between Chemotherapy and Radiotherapy. (5)

Q.No.7. Write Comprehensive note on:
(a) LASER and their use (5)
(b) OPTIC FIBRES and their importance in modern telecom system (5)

Q.No.8. Write all that you know about Pesticides. How are they classified by agronomists? (10)

Q.No.9. Write note on:
(a) Biotechnology (5)
(b) Global Warming (5)


Islamic History and Culture Paper-I


01. The Abbasids defeated:
a) Salahuddin Ayyubi
b) The Mongols
c) The Ghaznawids
d) None of these.

02. Ummayyah Caliph Mau'wiyah II was son of:
a) Abu Talib
b) Abu Sufyan
c) Jafar
d) None of these.

03. Which is the 3rd Surah in Al-Quran?
a) Al-Maida 
b) Al-e-Imran
c) An-Nisa
d) None of these.

04. Imam Shafi was:
a) Philosopher
b) Jurist
c) Poet 
d) None of these.

05. What is the modern day name of Abyssinia:
a) Africa
b) Ethiopia
c) Synia or Abass
d) None of these.

06. Aws and Khazraj were two tribes:
a) The Jews
b) The Quraish
c) The Ansaar
d) None of these.

07. Hazrat Hamza (RA) accepted in the year:
a) 3 Nabvi
b) 8 Nabvi
c) 2 A.H
d) None of these.

08. Rulers of Pre-Islam Iran were called:
a) Qaisar
b) Kisra
c) Sultan
d) None of these.

09. Before Islam Arab were:
a) Autonomous body
b) Illiterate
c) Own mind
d) None of these.

10. Hadith was compiled by:
a) Hazrat Abu Bakr (RA)
b) Hujjaj Bin Yousuf (RA)
c) Umar bin Abdul Aziz (RA)
d) None of these.

11. Hajre-i-Aswad means:
a) Pious Stone 
b) Black Stone
c) Historical Stone
d) None of these.

12. The battle of Jamal was fought between the Hazrat Aisha (RA) and:
a) Talha
b) Mu'wiyah
c) Yezid 
d) None of these.

13. Khalid bin Walid (RA) was removed from the command during the expedition to:
a) Iran
b) Tabuk
c) Yaman
d) None of these

14. Surah Al Noor speaks of:
a) Wars
b) Mal-i-Ghanimat
c) Judicial order only
d) None of these.

15. Imam Bukhari died in:
a) 322 A.D
b) 261 A.D
c) 241 A.D
d) None of these.

16. Asmaha The Najashi King of Habsha with whom the Muslim refuge took refuge for the first time was:
a) Jew
b) Christian 
c) Mushrik
d) None of these.

17. Sulh-i-Hudabiyah was written by:
a) Hazrat Abu Bakar (RA)
b) Hazrat Ali (RA)
c) Hazrat Umar (RA)
d) None of these

18. Hajjaj bin Yousuf was:
a) Ummayyad
b) Abbasid
c) Ottoman
d) None of these

19. Hazrat Abu Sufyan lost his eye in the battle of:
a) Taif
b) Ohud
c) Khandaq
d) None of these

20. Ibn-i-Sina was born in:
a) AH 370/ AD 980
b) AH 374/ AD 984
c) AH 368/ AD 970
d) None of these


Islamic History & Culture I Part2

Q2. The Byzantine civilisation was the one of the major civilisation of its time, explain its major acievements and the causes of its downfall?

Q3. Describe any Two of the following institutions of Islam in the light of teaching of the Holy Prophet (PBUH) and how to put into service at present in the Muslims states?
(a) Judicail System (b) Economic Organism (c) Character building and social order

Q4. Explain the basis on which Hazrat Abu Bakar (RA) became a Khalifah/Caliph and pen down his role as a protector of Islamic way of life.

Q5. Describe the scientific and literary advancement of Abbasid Period and how it can be revived in at present?

Q6. Give an account of the fall and disintegration of the Ottoman Empire and describe its similarities with present Muslim's rule?

Q7. The Muslim civilisation gave a new religious and socio-political order. Give a comparison with New World Order.

Q8. Explain the impact of Mithaq-e-Madina in that divergence living state of society of Medina and how it can be employed now? Discuss.


Islamic History & Culture II

Q2. What is meant by Civilisation and Culture and how it affects and also analyse the foundation of modern civilisation?

Q3. Give a brief sketch on "Evolution of Knowldge specially in the field of Science and Wisdom" in Muslim Spain.

Q4. "The down fall of Muslim Community", how do you consider it as blessing or loss for mankind? Discuss it in detail.

Q5. The role model for Muslim rulers may be as under:-
(i) Monarchy (ii)Khilafat (iii) Democracy
Which one is most practical and suitable to solve major problems of contemporary Muslim Ummah in the light of Islamic teachings?

Q6.highlight the main reasons and causes of Ottomans empire for their expansion and service towards Islam after the fall of Baghdad.

Q7. Write a comprehensive note on the nature and importance of Abbasid institutions, with special reference to Bait-ul-Hikmah and its impacts on society.

Q8. Write detailed notes on the life and works of the follwoing:
(a) Shah Wali Ullah Dehlvi
(b) S. Ameer Ali


FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR
RECRUITMENT TO POST IN BS-17
UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2013

Geography-Paper-I


PART- l (MCQs) (COMPULSORY)
Q.1

(1) The smallest scale maps are


(a) Topographical
(b) Cadastral
(c) Atlas
(d) None of theses

(2) The area between 50 and 70 degree longitude East on a map is

(a) Zone
(b) Gore
(c) Graticule
(d) None of theses


(3) A sector diagram is also called : 

(a) Histogram
(b) Bar diagram
(c) Pie diagram
(d) None of theses

(4) Mercator's projection is unsuitable for 

(a) Canada
(b) Pakistan
(c) Mexico
(d) All of theses

(5) The greatest annual variation in intensity of direct solar illumination occurs in 

(a) Temperate zone
(b) Polar areas
(c) Near to tropic
(d) None of theses

(6) Psychometric measures :

(a) Absolute humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Precipitation
(d) None of theses

(7) Mediterranean climate region has dry summer due to the influence of

(a) ITC
(b) Onshore Trade winds
(c) Subtropical highs
(d) None of theses

(8) How many cal per cm square per minutes the approximate solar constant 

(a) 3.00
(b) 2.00
(c) 1.00
(d) None of theses

(9) Land breeze is an example of 

(a) Vortex
(b) Geostrophic wind
(c) Convection cell
(d) None of theses

(10) When surface waters in the eastern Pacific are colder than normal, the climate event is called: 


(a) La Nina
(b) El Nino
(c) Micro-climate
(d) None of theses

(11) The deepest ocean trench is situated in

(a) Southern Indian Ocean
(b) Northern Atlantic Ocean
(c) Southern Pacific Ocean
(d) None of theses

(12) Saline ocean water freezes only when the temperature drops to :

(a) --2.9 degree C
(b) --0.9 degree C
(c) --1.9 degree C
(d) None of theses

(13) The hydrological cycle is driven by the energy of:

(a) Tides
(b) Waves
(c) Currents
(d) None of theses

(14) Wind abrasion is most powerful above the ground up to the height of:


(a) 3 meters
(b) 2 meters
(c) 1 meter
(d) None of theses

(15) Deposition of basic lava results in the formation of: 

(a) Strato volcano
(b) Composite cone
(c) Shield volcano
(d) None of theses

(16) 1 unit increases on the Richter scale means an increase in energy release of an earthquake by: 


(a) 10.7 fold
(b) 31.7 fold
(c) 41.7 fold
(d) None of theses

(17) Parallel arrangement of platy minerals in metamorphic rocks is called: 

(a) Crystallization
(b) Foliation
(c) Compaction
(d) None of theses

(18) What is the best description for Asthenosphere.?


(a) Hot, ductile with deformable rocks
(b) Weak, hot with rigid rocks
(c) Less dense and more plastic rocks
(d) None of theses

(19) Paternoster lakes are formed due to: 

(a) Continental glacial erosion
(b) Glacial-fluvial deposition
(c) Alpine glacial deposition
(d) None of theses

(20) Classification of air-messes depends on their: 

(a) Temperature and humidity
(b) Temperature and pressure
(c) Pressure and humidity
(d) None of theses

                                                         Part 2

Q.2. Ocean currents influence the climate,resources and economies of many countries.
Elaborate this statement and give examples.

Q.3. How have earthquake waves helped the scientist to know about the interior of the Earth.?Give a detailed description of the earth's interior with the help of diagrams.

Q.4. Discuss the silent features of monsoon type of climate.What impact does it have on millions living in the South Asia.?

Q.5. Differentiate between weathering, mass wasting and erosion. Give a detailed classification of mass wasting types and their areas of occurrence.

Q.6. Describe the young fold mountain building process with the help of moving Lithosphere Plate Theory.

Q.7. What is meant by Map projection.?Discuss different types of Conical Projection and tell us about their merits and demerits.

Q.8. Write short notes on any two of the following.

(i) Tropical Cyclones
(ii) Tides
(iii) Rock cycle
(iv) Aerial photographs 


                                                 Accountacy and Auditing Paper 2013          
Q.1: MCQs

1. Double entry book keeping was fathered by:
a) Luca Paoili b) Yoyji Ijiri c) Michael Hammer d) Ishikawa

2. Accumulated loss of a company is shown in the balance sheet as:
a) Liaility b) Asset c) As footnote in Balance Sheet d) None of These

3. Under the companies ordinance 1984, disclosure of financial information is legally required for listed companies under:
a) Schedule 6 b) Schedule 5 c) Schedule 4 d) Schedule 8

4. A company is considered sick under companies ordinance 1984 where current ratio is:
a) Below 0.5:1 b) Below 3:1 c) Above 2.5:1 d) None of These

5. Banks are required to prepare their financial information as per following legislation:
a) Free to prepare with no legislative requirements b) Under CO 1984
c) Banking Companies Ordinance 1962 d) State Bank Laws

6. Preparation of Financial Statements of Listed Insurance Companies in Pakistan is governed by:
a) Insurance Act 1938 b) Insurance Ordinance 2000 c) Companies Act 1913
d) CO 1984

7. Trading loss occurs when:
a) Revenues exceed the matching relevant costs b) Revenues and matching costs are equal to each other
c) When relevant matching costs exceed revenues d) None of these

8. Accounting requirements governing NGOs are prescribed in:
a) Partnership Act 1932 b) Cooperative Societies legislation c) CO 1984 d) None of these

9. Work Sheet is equivalent to:
a) Balance Sheet b) Income Statement c) Trial Balance d) None of these

10. Work sheet does include:
a) Fund flows statement b) Cash generation statement c) Cash Flow statement d) None of these

11. Deferred tax is shown in the balance sheet is:
a) Liablility b) Assete c) An expenditure in income statement d) None of these

12. The following represent tangible assets and are shown in balance sheet as:
a) People b) Expenses c) Revenues d) Goodwill (SOME CHALLA DESIGNED THIS PAPER

13. Under the rule of thumb a good current ratio is:
a) 6:1 b) 10:1 c) .05:1 d) 2:1

14. Financial Analysis is a legislative requirement under:
a) CO 1984 b) Partnership Act 1932 c) Voluntary Act d) None of these

15. Pakistan follows the following budget system at the federal level:
a) Zero Based Budgeting b) Program Budgeting c) Responsibility Budgeting
d) Incremental/Decremental Budgeting

16. Preparation of a budget by a company is compulsory under:
a) No Law b) Several laws c) Securities & Exchange Ordinance 1969 d) CO1984


17. Depreciation must be accounted for:
a) Revenues b) Fixed Assets c) Share Capital d) None of these

18. Accelerated depreciation is allowed under:
a) Income Tax Ordinance 2001 b) Voluntary principles c) Prudential Regulations d) None of these

19. Partnerships are legally required to prepare their financial distribution on wide basis under:
a) Partnership Act 1932 b) Securities & Exchange Rules 2000 c) Voluntary act of compliance d) None

20. A company is considered sick the market value compared to its par value is:
a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 0.25:1 d) None of these

Part II
Section A (Cost Accounting)

Q.2 Abbas manufacturing company submitted following information at 31st December 2011.

Inventories Opening Closing
Raw Material 100000 30000
Facrory Supplies 2000 1000
Work in Process 50000 15000
Finished goods 100000 _____?

Other data
Direct Labour 100000
Indirect labour 5000
Electric supply expenses 2000
Heating and lighting 4000
Workmen's compensation 3000
Factory insurance 1000 
Supertendence expenses 2000
Wages and rent factory 8000
Misc. expenses 1000
Factory supplies purchases 3000
Raw material purchased 230000
Tool expenses 2000

Finished goods inventory 1st january 200 units, sold during the year 2011, 5500 units @ Rs. 300 per unit and the closing inventory of finished goods at 31st December 2011 was 550 units.

Required: (a) Cost of goods sold (b) An income statement for the year 2011
(20)

Q.3 J.Town's stock at 1st january 2012 consisted of 100 units, cost as follows:

FIFO 100 units@ $ 60 $ 6,000
Average cost 100 units @ $ 55 $ 5,500

During the year ended 31st December 2012 Town made the following sales and purchases:

Purchases Sales(Units)
January 10@ $ 60
March 40
April 80@ $ 100
June 30
November 20
December 10@ $ 120

Required:
J. Town's stock at 31st December 2012 and the cost of goods sold for the year ended 31st December 2012 based on:
(a) FIFO
(b) Average cost(perpetual) (20)

Section B (Auditing)

Q.4 (a) Explain the relationship between desired level of assurance and legal liabilty of Auditors? (10)
(b) List out five specific quantifiable events that an auditor can verify, and state specific criteria for evaluating the events. (10)

Q.5 (a) Distinguish between the responsibilty for fraudulent omission and responsibilty for unintentional errors. (10)
(b) Elaborate the different types of Audit, under the Companies Act 1984. (10)


Section C (Income Tax)

Q.6 The following is the profit & loss account of Bright Company (Public) Ltd. For the tax year 2010-2011. Find out the total taxable income of the company and total tax payable. (20)

Debit side
Rs 
Salaries and wages 80000 
Printing & stationary 10000 
Rent exp. 15000 
Reserve for doubtful debts 7000 
Director's Fee 3000 
Donations 10000 
Cost of issue of debentures 2500
Loss of embezzlement 5000
Provision for gratuity 10000
Vehicle repair 20000
Depriciation 15000
Bad debts 1100
Income tax 21000
Rent, rate & tax 6000
Net Profit 27000
232600 

Credit side

Gross profit 171600
Income from rented shop 21000
Casual income 10000
Dividend 15000
Winning from lottery 4000
Sundry receipts 11000
232600

Notes:
1. Depriciation allowable Rs. 11800
2. Donations were paid to approved institutions.
3. Salaries and wages include Rs. 12400 paid to the Director of the company

Q.7 From the following data, calculate income tax payable by Mr. Hassan Khan for the year ending 30th june 2011. (20)

1. Basic salary Rs. 26000 p.m
2. Medical allowance Rs. 3500 p.m
3. House rent allowance Rs. 16000 p.m
4. Bonus Rs. 8000
5. Zakat deduction Rs. 5200
6. Agriculture income Rs. 50000


Section D (Business organization and finance)

Q.8 (a) Identify three basic forms of business ownerships and state the merits and demerits of any one of them. (10)
(b) How does a corporation operate? What effective roles can be played by the Board of Directors and top management in a corporation? (10)

Q.9 Select any FOUR to describe moderately: (5 each) (20)

(a) Types of share capital
(b) Prospects
(c) Sinking Fund
(d) Issue of Shares at Discount
(e) Memorendum of Association
(f) Manufacturing Companies

 Punjabi Paper -2013

Part l (MCQs) 

1. The poetry which is originated from common people is ;

a. kafi
b. shalook
c.lok geet
d. none of these.



2. Baba fareed ne kis sanaf me poetry ke he .

a. ghazal
b.se- harfi
c.Qisa
d.none of these


3.Hazrat sultan bahoo da mizaar kis zilley wich waqiya he .

a.lahore
b.Jhang
c.Multan
d. none of these

4. Who was the contemporary of Baba bhulley shah ?

a.waris shah
b.khawja ghulam fareed
c.shah hussain I believe
d.none of these

5 .''Aye roohi yar mila wari wey . shala thewey har dam sawrey wey '' kuheda sheer eye?


a.hashim shah
b.khawaj ghulam fareed
c.bhuley shah
d. none of these

6.In which city waris shah had written the story of heer

a. Malka kharal hanas
b.qasoor
c.pak patan
d.none of these.

7.Who is the writer of qisaa ''mirza sahiban.

a.hafeez taib
b.ahmed rahi
c.shareef kunjahi
d.none of these


8.who have discussed family relations in his poetry ?

a. Muneer Nizazi (I ticked on it )
b.baqee siddiqe
c.arif abdul mateen
d.none of these

9.In modern poetry collection of poetry having ghazals ?
a.Taranjan I ticked there
b.safer de raat
c.jigraatey
d.none of these

10. Who is famous for songs ?

a. Ahmed rahi
b.Arif Abdul Mateen
c.Hafeez Taib
d. none of these

11. The topic of book ''sachi sarkar ' by abdul hakeem samar

a. waa`az
b Seerat
c. fiqa
d. none of these

12. Who translated the addresses of Iqbal ?

a. shareef kanjahee
b shiraft nooshahey
c.dr. M. baqir
d. none of these

13. Parak de barey ''mian muhammad bakhs da wichar '' na da mazmoon keery kitab wich shamil aye

a. Ramzo riwayat
b. Saadaan
c.Muwaiz noshha ganj baksh
d. none of these

14. what is the name of the novel of dr.M baqir
a. Hatt
b.kaliyan ittan kaley roor
c. tahaley de thaley
d. none of thes

15.Which type of dramas are included in ''Tahaley de thaley ''

a. Radio drama
b.stage drama
c.screen drama
d.none of these

16''Punjabi Adab de kaani de likahri da name kiya he

a.Arif abdul mateen guess
b. dr.M.Aslam
c. Najam hussain syed .
d.none of these .

17 . ''KALIYA ITTAN DE KALEY ROOR'' Wich shamil likhta`n keery sanaf wich neen ?

a. Novel
b. Afsaana some are inshaiya (prose style) or some are short stories
c.drama
d.none of these

18. Who is famous in the art of drama?
a. Anwer ali
b. Ishfaq ahmed
c.doctor .M.Baqir
d. none of these

19 .Dr. M. Aslam Rana de book da name kiya he

a. Parakh partool
b. punjabi adab de khani mine was this
c. Ramz Riwaayat
d.none of these

20 . Who is protagonist of novel ''Hatt"

a. Ahma
b.kamala
c.gama
d.none of these

SECTION -A


Q 2: lok geet de tareef karo tey misala de zaraeey Inhaa`n de qismiyan biyan qaro .

Q 3. See-harfi dey tareef karo tey hazrat sultan bahoo dey se-harfy (Abyaat) dey khas gun (characters) biyan kro .

Q 4. Shah Hussain RABBI Ishaq dey wich dubbey hooey shahir ney .Ohnaan dey shaahirey misaalan dey ke wazahat kro .

Q 5. Muneer Niaazey de shahrey dey wich dar tey khoof dey barey wich apney wichaar likhoo.

SECTION -ll
Q 6. Khutbat -e-Iqbaal wich mazmoonaat dey khaas khaas moozooo apney lafz wich biyan kro .

Q 7. ''HATT'' dey central character ''AHMA'' da character likho .

Q 8. 'SAA`DAAN'' wich shamil mazmoonat choo`n kisey ek essay pe dicssuion karo .

Q 9. Thaley likhey choon kisey doo uttey bharwaan note likho:

a. Hafeez ta`ib de poetry
b. Message in Baba freed poetry .
c. Ishfaq Ahmed dey drama nigarey .
d. ''RAMAZAZ RIWAAYAT'' da critical review


International Relations 2013

Q.2- Critically discuss the concept of Balance of power in the light of Hans Morgenthau's thought.

Q.3- Evaluate the general view the peace of Westphalia as the founding moment for modern state system. Do you think this system is challenged in the contemporary world?

Q.4- In what ways was the Versailles treaty a contributory factor to european political instability in the period 1919-39?

Q.5- Elucidate the impact of world war II on the decolonialization process in Asia.

Q.6- Describe the efforts of African National Congress against Apartheid regime of South Africa.

Q.7- Carry out a comparative analysis of US foreign policy towards South Asia during and after the Cold war.

Q.8- Is globalization under threat because of world economic crises?




Psychology Paper 2013



PAPER I OBJECTIVES.


1: In which way behaviour is different from mental processes?
a)Introspection
b)Observation
c)Research
d)Psychoanalysis

2: Who is particularly intersted in studying patterns of behaviour, beliefs and values which are shared by people?
a)Social Psychologist
b)Experimental Psychologist
c)Clinical Psychologist
d)PsychoAnalyst

3: Who believed that mind is composed of senses, ideas, images and feelings?
a)William James
b)Titcher
c)Carl Rogers
d)Wundt

4: Which area of hypothalamus is responsible for satiety behaviour?
a)Lateral hypothalamus
b)Ventromedial hypothalamus
c)HyperPhagia
d)Antidiuretic hormone

5: WHich perspectives of psychology focusses on determining the extent to which psychological characteristics such as memory, intelligence are influenced by heredity?
a)Neuroscience
b)Biogenic
c)cognitive
d)socio-cultural

6: Which of the following relates to disorders in comprehension or production of speech?
a)Dysphasia
b)Aphasia
c)Broca's area
d)All of these

7: Which lobe of the brain is involved in planning, decision-making and some aspects of language?
a)Frontal
b)Parietal
c)Temporal
d)Occipital

8: Which neurotransmitter plays an important role in the experience of pleasure?
a)Serotonin
b)Dopamine
c)Nor-epinephrine
d)Acetylcholine

9: The hormone cortisol produced by adrenal gland is responsible for :
a)Reducing the body activity to take rest
b)Activating the body to prepare for stressful situation
c)Balancing the homeostasis
d)Planning and decision-making

10: The process through which a leaned response stops occuring due to the non-availability of reinforcement is called:
a)Generalization
b)Punishment
c)spontaneous Recovery
d)Extinction

11: When a teacher appreciates his students every time they ask questions with the hope that this will enable them to handle more technical questions in future , he is using conditioning?
a)Classical conditioning
b)Shaping
c)Modeling
d)Reinforcing

12: IN classical conditioning, the organism creates an association between:
a)Two Situations
b)Two Consequences
c)Two Stimuli
d)Two Responses

13: Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-actualised people according to Maslow?
a) They live creatively and fully using their potentials
b) They have efficient perceptions of reality, self and others
c) They are sensitive to fake and dishonest
d) They feel ashamed of their negative emotions

14: According to Freud, the process through which individuals release their excessive aggressive energy is called:
a) Dream Work
b) PsychoAnalysis
c) Catharsis
d) Slips of toungue

15: A layer of nerve cells at the back of eye which converts light waves into electrical impulses is :
a) Fovea
b) Retina
c) Cornea
d) Iris

16: The process through which brain uses the two retinal images into one dimensional perception is called:
a) Depth perception
b) Stereopsis
c) Binocular cues
d) Retinal Disparity

17: Which of the following is not an attribute of extroversion in the BIG FIVE FACTORS theory of personality?
a) Sociable
b) Talkative
c) Self-conscious
d) Affectionate

18: Which part of personality opposes the irrational desires of id according to Freud's Psychoanalytic THeory of Personality?
a) Ego
b) Psychic energy
c) Super Ego
d) LIbido

19: A psychological test is good only when it meaures what it is supposed to measure. This statement refers to which of the following?
a) Degree to which it is objective, precise and short
b) Degree to which it is consistent across several administrations
c) Degree to which it is norm based
d) Degree to which it is psychometrically sound

20: Which aspect of social interactions is measured by the theory of planned behaviour?
a) Attachment
b) Socialization
c) Group formation
d) Attitudes



PAPER II OBJECTIVES



1: A strategy used by the ego to defend itself against the anxiety provoked by the conflict of everyday life refers to:
a) Defense mechanism
b) Displacement
c) Rationalization
d) Ego-ideal
e) None of these

2: Development is about to:
a) Age
b) Gender
c) Change
d) Genes
e) None of these

3: The self-image formed during adolescence that integrates and individual's ideas of what he or she is and want to be refers to:
a) Ego-ideal
b) Ego-identity
c) Crisis
d) Ego
e) None of these

4: The theory of how people explain other's behaviour by attributing it either to internal disposition or to external situation refers to:
a) Attribution theory
b) Dispositional theory
c) Situational theory
d) Attributing causality
e) None of these

5: The behavioural approach is to reward and punishment as the cognitive approach is to:
a) Biological processes
b) The humanistic struggle for self fulfilment
c) individual genetic make up
d) Internal processes of the mind or mental events
e) None of these

6: Which of the following perspectives of psychology is most concerned with the individuals reaching their maximum potential?
a) Behavioural
b) Cognitive
c) Humanistic
d) Psychoanalysis
e) None of these

7: Jobs can by redesigned to make the work more interesting, challanging and to increase responsibility and opportunities for achievement:
a) Job Satisfaction
b) Job specification
c) Job enrichment
d) Job description
e) None of these

8: The basic difference between obsession and compulsion is:
a) The former involves preoccupation with certain throughts while the later involves preoccupation of certain actions
b) THe former is a mood disorder whereas the later is an anxiety disorder.
c) The former is diagnosed along with the Axis III of DSM-IV whereas the later is diagnosed along with Axis II of DSM-IV
d) Actually, there is no difference between the two disorders.
e) None of the above

9: The process by which egg is ripened and released is :
a) Mitosis
b) Fertilization
c) Ovulation
d) Implantation
e) None of these

10: The process by which we learn not to respond to similar stimuli in identical manner is :
a) Generalization
b) Extinction
c) Discrimination
d) All of these
e) None of these

11: Which method of gathering information about the brain indicates overall activity of the brain?
a) Positron Emission Tomography
b) Electroencephalogram
c) Electrical stimulation
d) Studying damage to the brain
e) None of these

12: The phsiological and psychological response to stress referred as:
a) Transition
b) Stressors
c) Strain
d) Hypertension
e) None of these

13: The behavioural technique for reducing anxiety in which patents paratice relaxation while visualising provoking situations of increasing intensity refers:
a) Symptom substitution
b) Time-out
c) Systematic Desensitization
d) Token economy
e) None of these

14: The ability to acquire information from the culture such as vocabulary and the kind of info learned in the schools is an example of :
a) Fluid intelligence
b) Componential intelligence
c) Crystallised intelligence
d) Contextual intelligence
e) None of these

15: Critics of Freudian psychoanalysis maintain that this form of threrapy:
a: does not put enough emphasis on sex
b) can be harmful by tolerating
c) is good mostly for treating phobias
d) is too quick to be effective
e) None of these

16: When Maya first saw violent movie, she was scared and disgusted. But now she has seen several such movies, she is barely affected by them. Maya has expericenced:
a) Habituation
b) Displacement
c) Cultivation
d) Catharsis
e) None of these

17: A person's IQ initially represented the ration of a persons'------------ age divided by his or her..................... age.
a) Chronological, mental
b) Mental, chronological
c) Real, Intentional
d) Chronological , neurological
e) None of these

18: Which of the following is true regarding the relative influence of genes and the environment of behaviour?
a) Environment is the primary influence throughout life
b) Genes are the primary influence before birth, and environment is the primary influence following birth.
c) Genes are primary infuence on the development of phsycal structures and environment factors are a great influence on the development of behavioural capacities.
d) In no sense can either genes or environment are dormant unit the approach of puberty.
e) None of these

19: Why do similarities in the IQ of raised-together siblings tend to disappear as the children grow older?
a) Sibling learn to over-compensate for deficiencies in each other's abilities
b) The genes that differentiate intellectual abilities are dormant until the appraoch of puberty
c) As children mature and become increasingly autonomous, they each tend to create a unique environment
d) ALL of these
e) None of these

20: The release of emotions is called :
a) Behaviour change
b) Insight
c) Mastery
d) Catharsis
e) None of these


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